Folks: I'm trying to follow this issue, and have become confused on a
couple of points.
1. It seems that such a large variety of foodstuffs are currently
available, at least to those with money to buy them, grow them, or free
access to them (e.g. as weeds), such that Vit A deficiency should not be
occurring at all. Indeed, some have stated that Vit A precursors are so
widely distributed in so many different foodstuffs, that it is difficult
NOT to get enough. If that is indeed true, then - as stated by others -
in order to actually become Vit A deficient and suffer risk of
blindness, one would have to be severely malnourished. If I am
understanding this all correctly, how then is golden rice going to
rectify Vit A deficiency if the real problem is simply such extreme
poverty or deprivation as to prevent the unavoidable intake of
sufficient Vit A (precursors)? As a corollary, if malnutrition were
alleviated, would not the Vit A deficiency, by definition, likewise be
alleviated? Conversely, alleviating Vit A deficiency through golden
rice, or indeed, any approach that involves money or access issues,
would by definition fail because the people who are poor enough to be so
profoundly malnourished in the first place will not have the funds or
access to obtain the golden rice. Have I got this right?
2. Is it indeed the case that prior to the advent of green revolution
(GR) rice, people in the IRRI target regions of Asia suffered less Vit A
deficiency and blindness? What does the historic trendline for these
problems look like, spanning the pre- and post-GR intervals through to
the present? If Vit A precursors are so readily available in so many
foodstuffs, and if the GR has deprived people of access to such
foodstuffs, then there should be a substantive change in
blindness/deficiency incidence in the post-GR era - no? Can anyone help
on this?
Thanks in advance - Ann
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