The context of the current dialogue is genetic engineering, but I
think it could equally well be biocides, or power-concentrating
agricultural practices in general. Perhaps it is equally true of
other contexts outside of my understanding.
So, my question to you is "why" and "when"? Why is government so
thoroughly, openly, and indeed, unashamedly abrogating its historical
responsibility for protecting the interests of its citizens?
1. Is there some kind of implicit assumption that what is good for
industry must, necessarily, be good for society as well (evidence,
2. Can it be as simple as campaign contributions/political influence?
This seems implausible in countries with short campaign windows and
correspondingly modest opportunities for explicit corruption, yet
this same phenomenon seems to pertain globally, regardless of the
density of lobbyists per elected official.
3. Or do elected officials and industry interests just swim in the
same circles, intermarry and produce fertile offspring, and just
basically interweave quasi-metabolic connections engendering
sympathetic responsiveness when it comes to policymaking?
4. Is it just easier for elected officials to keep within the fast-
flowing stream-of-consciousness which originated with
Reagan/Thatcher/Mulrooney, namely, "deregulation and let the buyer
beware", than to stand back and see it for what it is?
I don't know, which is why I am asking. I'd like to have an answer
for the interviewers who justifiably curious why no one seems to be
minding the shop anymore.
I also want to know "when". Has it always been this way and I was
just too blind or disinterested to to see, or is this a recent
phenomenon? I await your thoughts. Ann
Dr. E. Ann Clark
University of Guelph
Guelph, ON N1G 2W1
Phone: 519-824-4120 Ext. 2508
FAX: 519 763-8933
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